How Did "Muhammad Rafeeq" Come to Know the Lurian Cabalah So Well?
Christopher Jon Bjerknes
Why does he believe such a transmutation of souls is possible, if in fact that is what he believes? If that is not what he believes, then why would he doubt that such a thing could be easily faked, and must of logical necessity be faked, given that it is physically and spiritually impossible? Why would he believe that it is possible that Menachem Mendel Schneerson had inherited the soul of Shabbatai Zevi, if, in fact, that is what "Muhammad" believes?
Why did Daryl Bradford Smith tell me that "Muhammad" told him that he, "Muhammad", was at one time a practitioner of the Cabalah and believes in its occult powers to this day, though he, "Muhammad", again according to Daryl Bradford Smith's accounts, purports to have come to oppose the Cabalah and today, and for some time since abandoning it, has found the Cabalah repulsive and dangerous. How would anyone other than an advanced practitioner of Shabbataian Cabalah have acquired this esoteric and secret knowledge? How would anyone, other than a born Shabbataian, a born Jew, have become so trusted an initiate that this knowledge would have been passed on to him?
Perhaps "Muhammad" can inform of us of a book which would explain how the soul of Shabbatati Zevi could be placed into the body of one of the Rothschilds, and why it would be so difficult, and what those difficulties would be. If not, then perhaps "Muhammad" can provide us with some other source of this knowledge, which would demonstrate how he came to acquire this knowledge which he attempted to use to make an unprovoked and fallacious attack on my credibility.
It is interesting to note that "Muhammad" misrepresents the views of Neturei Karta with respect to the Talmud and mistakenly places in their minds a Shabbataian view of the Talmud as lesser than Torah and Cabalah. Jacob Frank railed against the Talmud.
As for the Lurian/Shabbataian/Frankist Cabalistic view that one should do the opposite of the Torah, consider the fact that the Torah instructs Jews to ruin the Goyim through usury, but to forgive debts to Jews. Why don't the bankers, whom "Muhammad's" friend David Pidcock has identified as the source of our woes, do the opposite of the Torah, charge no interest to the Goyim and forgive Goy debts, but instead impose usury on the Jews and ruin the Jews? Why do they not do the opposite of the Torah, and make the Jews, themselves included, the slaves of the Goyim?
Shabbataianism is the fulfilment of the Torah through political and economic means. It is hardly the opposite of the Torah, though it does indeed offer up that instruction. It is an irrational and inconsistent mythology.